This seems awfully similar to the Drew Levin vs. Craig Wescoe incident from a number of years ago. For those not familiar, my understanding of the incident is as follows:
It's the final round of a GP, where Drew Levin is playing against Craig Wescoe (for those not in the know, both are rather prolific players on the circuit; Craig Wescoe was the very same Craig Wescoe who won PT Dragon's Maze). Both players are Win-and-In. Levin wins the game and is thus in the Top 8. Following the game, Levin says something to Wescoe along the lines of “OMG I can't believe I made it! I bet my friend $100 at 50-to-1 odds that I'd make it!” Wescoe calls a judge on Levin; the judge declares that this is considered Wagering, and Levin is DQ'd from the event.
Based on Adam's suggestion above, was this actually Wagering?
Participants must place a stake (buy an entry, ticket, etc): There is no evidence, AFAIK, that Levin actually placed a stake. No money changed hands before the event, as far as I know. Levin simply said “I bet my friend that…” or something along those lines, which in my experience means that there would be money changing hands after the event but not before (that's how I've always heard those words used, your opinion may differ).
Winning involves an element of chance: Certainly true. It's Magic, after all.
The winner receives a prize of some monetary value: Certainly true. In this case, that “monetary value” is actually “money”.
How does the situation of Levin v. Wescoe differ from this situation? Why is the answer on this thread not a straight DQ, in line with Levin v. Wescoe?
EDIT: I should note that I'm not against the ruling of Levin v. Wescoe, I think that was the correct ruling, as the spirit of Wagering was certainly there; what I'm asking is more along the lines of why this situation is not black-and-white Wagering.
Edited Lyle Waldman (June 18, 2013 08:43:01 AM)