Observed at a GP:AP: I cast
Abzan Charm on your
Dragonlord Kolaghan.
NAP: Okay, but you have another Charm in your graveyard, right? Kolaghan triggers.
AP: Oh geeze, that's bad. Umm, let me think.
Me: Hey guys, let me pause you here. Kolaghan actually only triggers off creatures or planeswalkers, not instants.
Why this was interesting:At first glance, this looks like a simple GRV–Kolaghan should not have triggered, but did.
However, Kolaghan's trigger is one that creates a change in the visible game state. That means even if it's placed on the stack, the trigger
can still be missed if the player fails to “take appropriate physical action” when the trigger resolves. At the time, I decided that it was not appropriate to issue a GRV for that reason–how could I claim that a game rule was broken for a trigger that might not even resolve?
Why I felt the need to issue an infraction:The trigger would have killed the AP–unless he cast a spell in response to the nonexistent trigger to save himself (I think he was running
Foul-Tongue Invocation, but I don't remember for sure). Either the AP casting a spell or the AP scooping his cards would have damaged the game state, possibly irreparably. However, the General Philosophy section of the IPG makes it clear that “Judges don't stop play errors from occurring,” so I felt that if I was stepping in, that was de facto evidence that a play error had occurred. Is it possible for a player to make a “play error” that isn't an infraction? Even if it were, on the off chance that this player was trying to trick his opponent, I thought I needed to have this tracked in the system.
What I ended up doingI actually called this a CPV. My justification at the time was that because the trigger hadn't been resolved, no game rule was broken. However, the active player was incorrectly describing that stack, which is free information, since he claimed there was a trigger when Kolaghan had not actually triggered. Since I intervened to prevent the active player from “acting on incorrect information provided to him or her by his or her opponent,” which would be grounds for a CPV backup, I felt like this was a good compromise.
But in retrospect, this seems kind of forced. What's the difference between “putting a bogus trigger on the stack” and “describing a bogus trigger that's not really on the stack”? I feel like this logic could be used to twist any number of GRVs into CPVs by declaring that a rule wasn't really broken, just mis-characterized as having been broken. As a result, I'm not confident this ruling was correct.
To sum upI'm pretty sure that I overthought this ruling. A trigger was illegally played, which is a Game Play Error not covered by other specific infractions. But it still feels weird to me to issue a GRV for a game rule that might not actually end up broken. What are your thoughts?